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Wednesday, November 14th, 2007 07:58 pm (UTC)
Having a personal stake in the matter, I definitely prefer the "'s" even when the singular noun ends in "s". And I don't even notice that the three "s"es in a row in "boss's" is weird; it looks perfectly reasonable to me.

Part of my reasoning on this is that I pronounce the possessive "bosses", not "boss", so it should have an additional "s" compared to "boss".
Wednesday, November 14th, 2007 08:12 pm (UTC)
The usage I sort of learned and what Fowler says is to use the 's in one and two syllable names and in multi-syllable names accented on the next to last syllable. Though he says it's customary to omit the s if the final syllable is pronounced "iz" and in ancient classical names.
Wednesday, November 14th, 2007 08:30 pm (UTC)
It looks ok then me, actually, but there is always the option of rephrasing. I might do that if I had to use it often.
Wednesday, November 14th, 2007 08:31 pm (UTC)
I think "Tomas" is a person and "the boss" is a thing, even if the latter is capitalized. I would not omit the ess from "the national press's reaction", to make "the national press' reaction", because there's a "the" there. But if you were to write of a character called "Press", then the only reason I would not go with "Press' wishes" is that "Press" has one syllable.

If the character were "Parris" I would totally say "Parris' wishes", but I would not say "the local parish' rules", it would be "the local parish's rules".

If your "Tomas" had a line of robots named after him, I would change "Tomas' wishes" to "the Tomas's programming". The "the" would trump the name for me.

So, my personal rule, omit the final ess only where the name ends with ess, has more than one syllable, and is a *proper* noun—that is, a real name.
Thursday, November 15th, 2007 05:42 pm (UTC)
That would work if we were speakers of Mixtec, yes.
Wednesday, November 14th, 2007 09:53 pm (UTC)
My understanding is that names that end in an "s" take 's unless they are of Greek origin or the name of the Christian son of G-d. Thus:

Aristophanes'
Jesus'
Thomas's
Parris's

What I want to know is how you turn a name that is a possessive into a possessive, such as something belonging to the company with the Golden Arches:
McDonald's's? McDonald's'? McDonald's?
Thursday, November 15th, 2007 11:26 am (UTC)
Er, you do realize that "...of Greek origin" and "...the name of the...son..." aren't disjoint sets? (Okay, it's Latinized, but still.)
Thursday, November 15th, 2007 05:18 pm (UTC)
I didn't! I thought it was ultimately a Hebrew name, and only the Christ part was Greek. Thank you.
Friday, November 16th, 2007 10:24 am (UTC)
Well, that's what I get for posting early in the morning.

(Hush.)

Yes, of course it is ultimately a Hebrew name, and it was silly of me to forget that -- I've seen both "Yeshua" and "Yehoshua". But we get "Jesus" from Latin "Iesus" from Greek "Ἰησοῦς".
Thursday, November 15th, 2007 05:35 pm (UTC)
I don't know. I get wobbly feelings trying to remember what I've said in the past, let alone what I should write.
Thursday, November 15th, 2007 06:17 am (UTC)
I sort of go by sound: thus Lars' (because it's /z/) but Tomas's and definitely boss's (because it's /s/). --Even though I'd *say* "Lars's" (/larziz/). I'm not going to think about this too much, I've revised that book enough already.
Thursday, November 15th, 2007 05:34 pm (UTC)
Don't think about it at all. You get points just for using Lars as a name. It's one of my favorites.